So I dont know what reading the holy books of Islam and Judaism add to the knowledge that both Muslims and Jews forced other peoples to follow their religion and language when being ruled over.
When did Jews force other people to follow Judaism or “our language” (Ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, Yiddish, Ladino, Judeo-Arabic?)? Was it while we were exiled, forced into a diaspora, or slaughtered? And which exile, forced diaspora, or slaughtering are we talking about?
Judaism, by the way, is not a universal religion like Christianity or, to a lesser extent, Islam. It’s not THE exclusive religion for all people; it’s just for the Jewish people. Under halacha (Jewish religious law), you don’t even have to be Jewish to be “saved” or be considered a righteous person. It’s also not a proselytizing religion at all (historically, and to an extent currently, people are discouraged from converting to Judaism because being Jewish meant, you know, being killed). So, the idea that Jews would force conversion on non-Jews belies your ignorance theologically as well as historically. Other than very recently in the modern nation-state of Israel, when have the Jewish people conquered any land? Even then I don’t remember any decree of compulsory conversion or language…
Ah..so that is what happened from this..I was talking to OP earlier but I didn’t seem able to convince them..hopefully they are learning.
Does OP not know…. what Christian crusaders did?? Do they not know about the Spanish Inquisition, Spanish, Portuguese, Italian, French and British colonization? Do they not know about the California missions?
Ignorance or hypocrisy? Take your pick.